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RE: equivalence of <i><b></b></i> and <b><i></i></b> et. al. ?

• To: 'Stuart A Yeates' <stuart.yeates@c...>, xml-dev@l...
• Subject: RE: equivalence of <i><b></b></i> and <b><i></i></b> et. al. ?
• From: "Bullard, Claude L (Len)" <clbullar@i...>
• Date: Mon, 23 Feb 2004 14:30:55 -0600

So you are taking data already tagged in XML and inserting 
more markup into it, as in adding HTML tags to text nodes?

1)  You are right that markup systems are silent about 
these semantics.  They are in the domain of the 
application language.   However, in this case, a bold italic  
item and an italic bold item are rendered identically, yes, 
and rendering is the semantic yes, so why are these not 
equivalent semantically if not syntactically?

What do you mean by 'similar classes of constructs'?

2)  An XSLT script could be used to transform this 
example.  

len


From: Stuart A Yeates
[mailto:stuart.yeates@c...]

I have written a natural language modelling tool which marks up (inserts 
XML tags into) natural language documents already in XML.

I have come across an issue with this tool: some users and documents 
have an expectation that <i><b></b></i> and <b><i></i></b> (and similar 
classes of constructs) are equivalent, whereas my tool sees these are 
completely distinct.

 From looking at at the standards, is appears that HTML, XHTML and XML 
are all silent on the semantics of situations such as this.

Are there any systems or toolkits which have already been written to 
help systematise documents and corpora into a single, consistent 
representation?

cheers
stuart

-- 
Stuart Yeates            stuart.yeates@c...
OSS Watch                                  http://www.oss-watch.ac.uk/
Oxford Text Archive                             http://ota.ahds.ac.uk/
Humbul Humanities Hub                         http://www.humbul.ac.uk/

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