RE: Is "A != B" equivalent to "not(A = B)"?
> I've got a stylesheet that produces different results depending on > whether I use "A != B" or "not(A = B)"? Is this supposed to happen? > Can someone explain why? It's not very intuitive. When A and B are node-sets, A != B means some $a in A, $b in B satisfies $a != $b while not( A = B ) means not( some $a in A, $b in B satisfies $a = $b ) (the expansions, by the way, are legal XPath 2.0 expressions) Michael Kay Software AG home: Michael.H.Kay@xxxxxxxxxxxx work: Michael.Kay@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx XSL-List info and archive: http://www.mulberrytech.com/xsl/xsl-list
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