Subject: RE: Is "A != B" equivalent to "not(A = B)"?
From: "Michael Kay" <michael.h.kay@xxxxxxxxxxxx>
Date: Sat, 27 Apr 2002 18:58:43 +0100
|
> I've got a stylesheet that produces different results depending on
> whether I use "A != B" or "not(A = B)"? Is this supposed to happen?
> Can someone explain why? It's not very intuitive.
When A and B are node-sets,
A != B
means
some $a in A, $b in B satisfies $a != $b
while
not( A = B )
means
not( some $a in A, $b in B satisfies $a = $b )
(the expansions, by the way, are legal XPath 2.0 expressions)
Michael Kay
Software AG
home: Michael.H.Kay@xxxxxxxxxxxx
work: Michael.Kay@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx
XSL-List info and archive: http://www.mulberrytech.com/xsl/xsl-list
|